I'm sorry, Martin, but none of us have been able to reach them. It's the same as singular "each," but I personally dislike using it without substituting to a different determiner. None of them is armed. 8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God. You try them one after the other but none of the keys works. 7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. (personal preference) (colloquially used, but would be better as follows) The apartments do not have balconies. Some indefinite pronouns are particularly troublesome Everyone and everybody (listed above, also) certainly feel like more than one person and, therefore, students are sometimes tempted to use a plural verb with them. (In this last example, the word their precludes the use of the singular verb. And none of us have a choice. Despite that though, none + are often just feels more natural for a lot of people when they use it with plural verbs. No, none and none of - English Grammar Today - a reference to written and spoken English grammar and usage - Cambridge Dictionary None of them are playing today. To mean “not any,” use plural verbs (“none of them are/have”). Fact: Only when none is clearly intended to mean “not one” or “not any” is it followed by a singular verb in all other cases it is plural. All the students could be given the task because they are all suited with it. None of the conspirators has (or have) been brought to trial. (correct) None of the apartments have a balcony. When none is modified by almost, however, it is difficult to avoid treating the word as a plural: Almost none of the officials were (not was) interviewed by the committee. One special problem occurs with the word none, which has its origin in the phrase not one. Simple reason" "None" is a contraction of "not one." Singular "none" is equivalent to "not one," "not any," or "no part." Romans 8:9 Context. To mean “nobody” or “not one,” use singular verbs (“none of us is/has”). D. none of , it can be inferred from the meaning of the sentence. For more details see FAQ section of … That is why none of us have any. Concerning None have/None has "none" has been used with both singular and plural verbs since the 9th century. That is, the purpose of "none" in such sentences is to provide emphasis: not even a single apartment has a balcony. These people do have etymology on their side, as none is derived from the Old English nãn, meaning not one, itself derived from a combination of the words ne (not) and ãn (one). None of us have ever experienced them. "None of them have", because of "them" in the "none of them" construction. 6 For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. However, many people today (like most of the others who have answered this question) view "none" like "some" and make it singular or plural according to what it's none of. 9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. None of = Used before the demonstratives (this, that), possessives (his, your, my) or pronouns;. None of the students have done their homework. Stritly, traditionally, properly, it's "None of them HAS." A traditional rule of usage says that none must always be used as singular; however, it has been used with both singular and plural verbs by distinguished writers for a long time. All of us are not going to the party. For them, none means not any, rather than not one. If it quantifies a plural noun phrase, as in none of us, then it's equivalent to the negation of a universal quantifier in many cases. A man Whom none of us have seen since he left toWn. 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